COURTESY: DR: ALTAF GHUMRO &
PREPARED BY DR: MUHAMMAD SHEERAZ AKHTAR SOOMRO
1] A newborn child has abdominal swelling on the right side of the umbilical cord. It is not covered with amnion. The condition is
A} Gastroschisis
B} omphalocele
2] Which of the following is not related to Meckel’s Diverticulum?
A} is remnant of urachas
B} lies 60 cm proximal to illeocecal Valve
3] A boy is excreting meconium from rectum and has severe constipation. The rectal examination showed no ganglion cells. The condition is called
A} Intussusceptions
B} Hirschsprung’s disease
4] Regarding somites
A} They develop on both sides of notochord.
B} they develop from lateral plate mesoderm
5] Regarding diaphragmatic hernia the most likely is
A} Absence of septum transversum
B} Failure of pluiroperitoneal membrane
6] Which one of the following is not the derivative of 1st (mandible) pharyngeal arch?
A} Incus
B} Malleus
C} Stapes
D}
E}
7] Embrologically, Which one of the following is not the developmental remant
A} lateral umbilical ligament
B} Medial umbilical ligament
C} Median umbilical ligament
D} ligamentum teres
E} ligamentum venosum
8] The part of mouth derived from ectoderm is
A} Epithelium of parotid salivary gland
B} Epithelium of Tongue
C} Floor f mouth
D}
E}
9] A male with Gynaecomastia, small testes, diagnosed as Klienfelters syndrome. The karyotype involved is
A} 45 XO
B} 46 XX
C} 47 XXX
D} 47 XXy
E} 47 XX
10] Somites are derived from
A} Intermediate mesoderm
B} Paraxial mesoderm
C} Lateral plate mesoderm
D} Ectoderm
E} Endoderm
11] An I/V Urograph of 8 year old boy shows Excretion of dye normal I kidney but absence of shadow on left side. Instead there is a small shadow just above the bladder on the left side. Which one of the following is most likely?
A} Horse shoe kidney
B} Constricted ectopic kidney
C} Pelvis kidney
D} Non rotating kidney
E} Unilateral renal agenesis
12] Which one of the following is not formed from urogenital sinus?
A} Bartholin’s gland
B} Urethral glands
C} Para urethral glands
D} Seminal vesicle
E}
13] Virus damage the cell by
A} making the pores in cell membrane
B} Forming free radicals
C} Altering the formation of proteins
D} Nuclear damage
E} using energy for their own metabolism
14] The tissue damage by Ionization Radiation is due to
A) Damage to Golgi bodies
B} Formation of free radicals
C} Hydropic degeneration
D} Metaphase of cell
E} Swelling of cells
15] All are features of IRREVERSIBLE cell injury EXCEPT
A} Karyolysis
B} Karyorhexis
C} Autolysis
D} Shrinkage of mitochondria
E} Appearance of myelin figure
16] Which one of the following is least likely involved in increasing Osteoporosis
A} Increased wt: on bone
B} Renal cell carcinoma
C} Carcinoma prostate
D}
E}
17] Patient X-Ray shows hilar lymph nodes. Granuloma but no necrosis. What is the diagnosis?
A} Sarcoidosis
B} Silicosis
C} Tuberculosis
D}
E}
18] In women the most common form of necrosis after trauma is due to
A} Trauma to fatty tissue
B}
C}
D}
E}
19] Dystrophic calcification is present in which of the following
A} Acute pancreatitis
B} Malaria
C} Tuberculosis
D}
E}
20] Which one of the following is most likely feature of reversible injury?
A} Cell swelling
B} Karyorhexis
C} Decreased glycogen
D} Myelin figures
E}
21] A person fell on road and got an abrasion on elbow the first event likely occur would be
A} Vasoconstriction
B} Platelet adhesion
C} Platelet aggregation
D}
E}
22] Which one of the following facilitates phagocytosis in neutrophils?
A} C5a
B} C3a
C} C3b
D} C3 - C5 complex
E}
23] Which one of the following is potent antioxidant?
A} Vitamin A
B} Vitamin C
C} Vitamin E
D} Transferrin
E}
24] Which one of the following among Arachidonic acid metabolite is most likely function mediated in phagocytosis?
A} Chemo taxis
B} Diapedisis
C} Transmigration
D}
E}
25] Which one of the following is potent COX-II INHIBITOR?
A} Aspirin
B} Celocoxib
C} Indomethacin
D} Meloxicam
E} Piroxicam
26] In case of pulmonary embolism extensive infarction causes sudden death due to
A} Air embolism
B} Fat embolism
C} Thromboembolism
D}
E}
27] A patient was operated for abdominal surgery. A few days after he developed pain and swelling in his right leg. Which one of the following is most likely?
A} endothelial injury
B} hypercoagubility
C} stasis and endothelial injury
D}
E}
28] A soldier has profuse bleeding. He was admitted in the hospital. Which one of the following should be given immediately?
Fresh frozen plasma
B} 20 days old blood
C} 3 days old blood
D}
E}
29] A boy was born with the condition of polycystic kidney disease. Which one of the following is correct?
A} Autosomal Dominant disorder
B} Autosomal recessive disorder
C} X- linked disorder
D}
E}
30] In a renal transplantation, which one of the following is single most significant test to be done?
A} ABO blood grouping of donor and recipient
B} HLA typing and matching
C} Donor and recipient should be close relatives
D}
E}
31] A organ was transplanted to the patient, but within 10 mins the organ failed. Which one of the following is likely etiology?
A} Antibody mediated
B} T-Cell mediated
C} Preformed antibodies
D}
E}
32] AIDS occur in the presence of
A} Kaposi’s sarcoma
B}
C}
D}
E}
33] A 2 year old boy is suspected as HIV positive, which one of the following is the confirmatory test in the boy
A} ELISA test
B} Western Blot test
C} PCR
D} Increased levels of HIV in T lymphocytes
E}
34] A 10 year old boy was operated for gastrectomy, which one of the following type of anemia is developed postoperatively
A} Megaloblastic anemia
B} Iron deficiency anemia
C} Normocytic norm chromic anemia
D}
E}
35] Autoimmunity is not involved in which one of the following
A} Pernicious anemia
B} Grave’s disease
C} Diabetes mellitus
D} Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
E} Thymoma
36] In case of hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which one of the following is seen?
A} Anti thyroglobulin
B}
C}
D}
E}
37] To differentiate Chron’s disease from Ulcerative colitis, which one of the following is likely significant regarding Chron’s disease
A} has increased frequency to cancer
B} Involves both small and large intestine
C}
D}
E}
38] Regarding alcoholic hepatitis, following is finding
A} Mallory bodies
B}
C}
D}
E}
39] A 20 year old girl has developed Galactorrhea due to prolactinoma. Bromocriptine is given to treat it the drug causes
A} Inhibition of prolaction from pituitary gland
B} Decreased prolaction from hypothalamus
C} Inhibition of prolaction from breast
D} Stimulation of prolaction of anterior pituitary
E}
40] An unconscious patient presented in ED does not respond to Naloxone. Which of the following drug has been taken by this patient?
A} Morphine
B} Heroine
C} Pethidine
D} Phenobarbital
E}
41] Strongest layer of small intestine is
A} Mucosa
B} Sub mucosa
C} Circular layer
D} Serosa
E} Longitudinal layer
42] Regarding adrenal medulla which one of the following is true?
A} Secretes epinephrine and Norepinepinephrine in 80/20 ratio
B}
C}
D}
E}
43] R.E.R most likely
A} Synthesizes protein
B} Synthesizes lipids
C}
D}
E}
44] Half life of insulin is
A} 5 mins
B} 90 mins
C} 120 mins
D}
E}
45] Insulin
A} Converts glycogen to glucose
B} Stimulates protein synthesis
C} Stimulates lipolysis
D}
E}
46] Which one of the following most likely contains abundant cholesterol?
A} VLDL
B} LDL
C} Chylmicrons
D} HDL
E}
47] Which one of the following most likely causes Increase in GFR?
A} Constriction of afferent arteriole
B} Constriction Of efferent arteriole
C}
D}
E}
48] Gastric emptying is delayed by
A} Gastrin
B} Secretin
C} CCK
D}
E}
49] Which one of the following pancreatic enzyme is most likely involved in fat absorption
A} Amylase
B} Lipase
C}
D}
E}
50] Smooth muscle
A} Contain sarcomere
B} T-tubules are present
C} Gap junctions are present
D} Forms motor end plate
E}
51] Steady pressure on skin is perceived by
A} Pacinian’s corpuscle
B} Ruffini’s corpuscle
C} Meissener’s Corpuscle
D} Golgi tendon organs
E}
52] Which one of the following is related to pain?
A} Serotonin
B} Substance P
C}
D}
E}
53] Free nerve endings have receptor for
A} Light touch
B} Pressure
C} Pain
D} Vibration
E}
54] Which one of the following has highest pressure?
A} Pulmonary artery
B} Left atrium
C} Right atrium
D} SVC
E}
55] Flow of current through junctions in the muscle
A} Smooth muscle
B} Skeletal muscle
C} Cardiac muscle
D}
E}
56] A profusely bleeding patient develops hypotension, which one of the following would be immediate mechanism to maintain B.P
A} Baroreceptor reflex
B} Chemoreceptor reflex
C} Secretion of ADH
D} Aldosterone
E} Renin angiotensin mechanism
57] Water enters into the cell by
A} Pinocytosis
B} through pores
C} Simple diffusion
D} Facilitated diffusion
E} Active transport
58] Insulin secretion is controlled by
A} Glucagon
B} increased glucose
C} Decreased glucose
D}
E}
59] Systolic B.P is highest in
A} Pulmonary arteries
B} Cerebral arteries
C} Renal arteries
D} Brachial arteries
E}
60] End diastolic volume depends on
A} Atrial contraction
B} Distensibility of ventricles
C} Duration of diastole
D} Venous return
E}
61] Mean electrical axis of heart is deviated to left if
A} Heart is angulated on right side
B} Pulmonary stenosis
C} Right bundle branch block
D} COPD
E}
62] Pulse Oxymeter measurement gives error in the reading if
A} Pt. is dark skin
B} Increased conc: of Hb A
C} Increased Conc: of Hb F
D} Aortic stenosis
E}
63] Secretion of potassium by distal collecting tubule decrease by
A} Increase in potassium in diet
B} Hyperaldosteronism
C} Metabolic alkalosis
D} Spironalactone intake
E} Thiazide diuretic
64] Absorption of iron is markedly affected by
A} Ingestion with meal
B} Partial gastrectomy
C} Trivalent form
D}
E}
65] Patient with pancreatitis has developed steatorrhea due to deficiency of
A} Lipase
B} Pepsin
C} Amylase
D} Renin
E}
66] Absorptive surface of small intestine is
A} 50
B} 100
C} 200
D} 350
E} 500
67] Daily dietary protein for 70 kg. Man is
A} 12 gm
B} 120gm
C} 200 gm
D} 150 gm
E}
68] Source for metabolic fuel for liver in post absorptive state is
A} Glucose
B} Ketones
C} Glycerol
D} Fatty acids
E}
Sunday, May 11, 2008
Saturday, May 10, 2008
ANESTHESIA MARCH' 08
FCPS I - 26th MARCH' 08
ANESTHESIA
1. If a drug is taken orally. How will u assess the drug?
a. plasma drug conc
b. blood drug conc
c. urine drug conc
2. Regarding Nitroglycerine, all are true except
a. extensive 1st pass effect
b. venodilator
c. dec venous return
d. dec HR
e. t1/2 is 3-5 min
3. Warfarin, effect inc by
a. Cimetidine
4. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than in adults
a. dec metabolism
b. dec plasma protein binding
5. Enzyme induction occurs in:
a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. adrenals
6. Digoxin toxicity
a. Inc K*
b. Inc Mg*
c. dec Ca**
d. dec Na*
e. alkalosis
7. Secondary active transport occurs thru
a. glucose
b. Na*
c. K*
d. Urea
8. 2 liters of 2 different gases of diff mol wt contain
a. equal no. of molecules
b. equal no. of atoms
9. Capillary permeability is inc by
a. hypertension
b. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
c. intersitial hydrostatic press
d. altered permeability
10. PG in inflammation dec by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors
11. Which is true.
a. all parasymp are cholinergic
b. all sympathetic are adrenergic
c. all post-gang parasymp are cholinergic
12. Gastric motility is inc by:
a. inc gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
13. Gastric acid is inc by
a. Gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
14. Basal level of bile
15. alpha recptors effects ?
a. inc HR
b. lipogenesis
c. midriasis
d. piloerector contraction
e. bronchodilator
16. Beta effect ?
a. Inc HR and force of contraction
17. ACh effect?
a. Inc salivation
b. inc sweating
c. constipation
18. Thirst is dec by:
a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. Ag II
d. baroreceptor efferent
e. inc Hematocrit
19. promotes each others actions
a. atropine and reserpine
b. amytriptyline and reserpine
c. atropine and amitryptyline
20. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mg/kg thiopentone, pt is hypotonic. Cause ?
a. hypersensitivity
b. dec HR
c. dec contractility
21.In hypertonic obs cardiomyopathy, which Ca** channel blocker is used:
a. Nifedipine
b. Nicardipine
22. Loop diuretics + thiazides enhance each others effect ( Dec NaCl abs) at:
a. descending loop of Henle
b. ascending loop of Henle
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. collecting duct
23. Pt with mild CCF. Treatment started. 1 week later pt complains of severe pain at Rt big toe. Cause:
a. thiazide
b. furosemide
c. ACEi
d. amiodarone
24. Metastatic pleural effusion. Drug to be given:
a. streptomycin
b. clindamycin
c. corticosteroids
d. bleomycin
25. Monotherapy for mild CCF:
a. digoxin
b. captopril
c. nifedipine
d. propranolol
26.Pacemaker for complete heart block. Terminals shd be in:
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Rt atrium
d. purkinje
e. Rt ventricle ..............(correct)
27. Infant with renal abnormality (renal artery stenosis). Drug responsible:
a. ACEi
b. Ca** channel blocker
c. amiodarone
28.Lungs inactivate Bradykinin by:
a. enz involved in converting kallikrein to plasma protein
29.After loss of 1 litre of blood in 5 min:
a. diastolic press dec
b. systolic press dec
c. aldosterone inc
d. no change
30. CO = VR. Large hump on left of cardiac pacing mentions:
a. inc contractility
b. inc HR
c. inc end-diastolic vol
31. Amiodarone.........> MOA
32. Lidocaine. MOA?
a. dec abnormal tissue conduction and no effect on normal tissue
b. inc PR interval
c. dec atrial contraction
d. dec AV conduction
e. inc QRS
f. inc QT
33. Class IA antiarrythmic drugs
a. Lidocaine
b. quinidine
c. procainide
d. amiodarone
34. Lidocaine as antiarrrythmic:
a. blocks Na* channels
b. Beta blocker
c. K* channel blocker
35.Verapamil ..... as antiarrythmic ?
36.Drug that inc extracellular K* (moves K* out of the cell):
a. Angiotensin
b. H2CO3
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. pH
e. exercise
37. Sec K* in renal cells
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. carbonic anhydrase
38. Consistent finding in hypoKalemia
a. prolong vomiting
b. diarrhea
c. ureters attached to colon
39. Metabolic alkalosis
a. renal failure
40. ARF- most effect.
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LOH
d. CD
41. Hb 8.0, HCO3- inc (35), pH Inc, Ca++ dec. Cause
a. ARF
b. Vit D def
c. folic acid deficiency
d. PTH
42. Anesthetics differ from anelgesics in:
a. only alter A delta and C fibers
b. Anesthetics effect at cerebral level and analgesics at spinal cord level
c. affects only pain and temp and no other sensory modalities
43. High output cardiac failure
a. Thiamine
b. B2
c. B6
d. Folic acid
44. 90 yrs old lady with purplish large patch on Rt hand and arm. No itching or pain. No comorbids, Otherwise Normal. Reason?
a. Capillary abn
b. Prothrombin
c. Vit K dependent clotting factors
45. 10 yrs old girl from Baluchistan c/o fatiguw, lethargy, mild jaundice, discoloration of skin, enlarged spleen. Hb 8.0, MCV 58, S. Ferritin 1000. Appropriate treatment?
a. deferroxamine
b. blood transfusion
c. iron transfusion
46. Death d/t embolism after accident
a. Fat
b. tumor cells
c. air
d. thromboembolism
47. Warfarin, effects on:
a. Factor VIII
b. factor III
c. Prothrombin
48. Ibpratopium bromide given by nebulization:
a. dec ACh release in bronchi
b. vasodil
c. inc secretion
49. Mast cell stabilizer.
a. Na chromoglycate
50. T1/2 of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:
a. 20-50 hrs
b. 50-100 hrs
c. 100-200 hrs
d. 36-200 hrs ................... (correct)
51. Post menopausal women with brease ca. DOC
a. Tamoxifen
52. Sec released from thyroid gland entering circulation is:
a. Thyroxine
b. Free T3
c. free T4
d. TSH
e. TRH
53. Cushing's triad:
a. Inc ICP, HTN, Bradycardia
b. Inc ICP, hypoTN, bradycardia
c. inc ICP, hypoTN, tachycardia
d. inc ICP, HTN. tachycardia
e. dec ICP, HTN, tachycardia
54. CSF
a. total 150 ml
b. production rate 20 ml/hr
c. produced by ependymal cells of choroid plexus
d. drained by lymphatics
55. CSF:
a. Inc K* than plasma
b. dec glucose
c. dec specific gravity
56. PTH
a. inc PO4 abs from renal tubules
b. inc Ca resorption from bones
c. CRF
d. Anemia
57. Imp buffer in interstitial fluid
a. H2CO3
b. Hb
c. plasma pr.
d. PO4
58. Cell wall synthesis inhib
a. Penicillin
59. Sulphonamides inhibit
a. tetrahydrofolate in bacteria
60. Dark urine after starting ATT.
a. Rifampin
61. 1 week after starting of ATT, pt c/o pain in big toe. Reason
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. PZA
62. Needle inserted at paramedian vertebral canal pierces:
a. ant spinal lig
b. post spinal lig
c. supraspinal lig
d. interspinal log
e. ligamentum flavum
63. Pseudomembrane colitis linked to:
a. clindamycin
b. penicillin
c. cephalosporins
d. erythromycin
64. Regarding chemotherapy all are true, except:
a. often multi therapy is not curative
b. req daily dosing of multiple drugs for long time
65. Flumazenil
a. onset of action 30-60 min
b. all unconscious pts must be screened by this drug
c. paradoxical tachycardia
d. max safe dose 1 mg/day
66. Isoflurane
a. MAC 1.9
b. req special vaporizer
c. dec HR
66. Sevoflurane
a. dec HR
b. req use of normal vaporizer
67. MAC of Sevoflurane with 60% NO
a. 0.66-0.68
67. Ether causes
a. autonomic stimulation
68. Enflurane
a. EEG typical of seizures
b. not concerned to dose / conc adm
c. inc ICP
d. nonevident facial spasm
69. More pungent.
a. Isoflurane
b. enflurane
c. desflurane at MAC <1
70. Halothane
71. Metabolism of halides to release fluroide levels in descending order:
a. desfurane < isoflurane < enflurane < sevoflurane < halothane < methoxyflurane
0.02 0.2 2.5 3 - 5 20
72. Blood flow regulation
a. cerebrum > cerebellum > sp. cord
b. sp. cord > cerebellum > cerebrum
c. cerebrum > sp. cord > cerebellum
73. N2O shd not be used in elderly with intestinal obs d/t:
a. risk of inc distension
74. Cylinder half filled with liquid N2O. Pressure in the cylinder?
75. Pressre of N2O cylinder is 750 psi. Pressure in the cylinder till the last drop evaporates?
76. T1/2 N2O ?
a. does not undergo metab and is exc unchanged
77. Myocardial toxicity to a L/A?
a. Bupivacaine
78. cardiovascular collapse
a. bupivacaine
79. MetHbemia
a. Prilocaine
80. Fracture 5, 6th rib. longest acting L/A to be given
a. Bupivacaine
81. MAC related to:
a. Bl / gas solubility
b. oil / gas solubility
c. alveolar air conc.
82. Hyperoxia. All true except 1.
a. retrolental fibroplasia
b. atelectasis
c. dec surfactant prod
d. CV depression
e. anemia
83. PG released in inflammation are inhibited by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. serotonin
84. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic pt
a. atracurium
b. tubocurare
c. cisatracurium
d. suxa
85. Muscle relaxant, renally exc, long duration of action
a. tubocurare
b. vancuronium
c. pancuroniun
d. gellamine
86. For disinfection hands shd be washed with
a. phenol
b. alcohol with chlorhexidine
c. formaldehyde
87. The operating room shd b cleaned with the following drug, following surgery of HIV pt:
a. 10% gluteraldehyde
b. 1% phosphoenol
c. 2% gluteraldehyde
d. H2O2
88. Following is true regarding sterilization:
a. repeated heating denatures polyvenyl tubings
b. autoclaving is heating objects at 121 degC at 15 psi for 3 min
c. radiation (UV light)
d. dry heat
e. formaldehyd
89. Reason for heat generation when CO2 is passed thru soda lime
a. formation of CaCO3
b. CaO formation
c. friction b/w soda and CO2
90. Flowmeter stops working when
a. flow of N2O > O2
b. flow of O2 > N2O
c. breakage / disruption of control valve.
91. Laminar flow (MURAD QS)
a. flow directly prop pressure
b. resistance independent
92. When Rynolds no. exceeds 3000
a. viscosity dec
b. density dec
c. velocity dec
93. Flow meter
a. used towards expiration
b. kept vertical to keep the dial needle at zero
c. not affected by humidity
d. cannot be attached to the ventilator
94. Regarding transducer all are true except
a. changes signal from 1 form of energy to another
b. capacitanc transducer can be used on body
95. Movement of molecules from high conc they layer/ surface:
a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. doppler effect
96. Critical temp is:
a. the temp at which gas must be cooled to become liquid
97. Latent heat of vaporization:
a. temp at which liquid converts to vapour / gas without the utilization of external heat
b. becomes zero with gain of energy
98. Relation of vol of a subs to its weight is:
a. density
b. viscosity
c. conc
99. To convert Celcius scale to Farenheit scale:
a. 9/5 *F- 32
b. 5/9 *F x 32
c. 5/9 *F + 32
d. Subract 32 and multiply by 5/9
e. add 32 and multiply by 9/5
100. Pt lying uncovered in operating room. Max heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
101. Pt with ETT tube. Heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
102. As the gas flows thru the vaporizer
a. gas is heated
b. outside of the container is cooled
c. surface vapour with highest energy is evaporated
103. Humidity is measured by:
a. hygrometer
b. thermometer
104. Apart frm measuring end tidal CO2 conc., capnograph can also measure
a. CO2 saturation
b. PO2
c. reduced Hb
d. oxyHb
105. Regarding Capnograph
a. rise of baseline indicate failure of valve
b. rise of height indicate valve failure
106. O2 is measured by all techniques except ......................(MURAD QS)
a. mass spectrometry
107. alpha waves with eyes closed
a. convert to beta when eyes open
b. convert to delta in REM
c. followed by slow frequency, high altitude wave
108. During diathermy when neutral plate is disturbed: ( Burn inc as current density inc, but independent of freq )
a. pt may get a burn even at ECG electrodes ( Burn can occur at all frequencies )
b. depends it is operating at cutting or coagulation mode
c. depends on current frequency
109. Strong magnetic instruments may not be used in a remote village d/t side effects. Instrument that can be used is:
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Angioplasty
110. Resistance in series:
a. inc as the wire is stretched
b. known as strain gauge used as pressure transducer
c. proportional to current flow
111. Wheatstone bridge
a. measures changes of resistsnce
b. no current flows when bridge is balanced
112. Pulse oxymetery
a. signals occur at 0.5 sec
b. light emitted by filtered light source
113. Variance is related to:
a. variability
b. square root of std deviation
c. range
114. Which measure of central tendency is used most frequently in clinical practise
a. mean
b. mode
c. median
d. 50th percentile
e. Wilcoxon rank sum test
115. t-test
a. shows relation of 2 paired means
116. Surgeon treats 200 pts of heamorrhoids. He randomly divides the pts into surgically treated and pharmacologically treated groups. After 1 yr he reasses the pts and finds that surgically treated pts have better outcome. This is called:
a. case - control study
b. cohort study
c. prospective cohort
d. randomized control trials
117. Treatment of strep pneumonia by sulphonamide and penicilline by random selection is called:
a. single blind
b. double blind
c. tripple blind
118. O2 carried most in fetal circ.
a. Umblical artery
b. Umblical vein
c. Superior vena cava
d. Aorta
119. Esophagus histology
a. covered by squamous ep
b. has str. sq in upper 1/3
c. has str. sq. in lower 1/3
d. has 3 layers of muscles
e. esophageal opening acting as anatomical sphincter
120. Length of larynx.
a. 15 cm average
b. cricoid to T2 cartilage
121. Esophageal opening
a. at left crus of diaphragm
b. Left phrenic nerve also passes thru this opening
c. at level of T12 vert
d. acts as anatomic sphincter to the stomach
122. Pt complains of chest pain for more than 30 min . ECG shows changes in V1- V4. It denotes:
a. anterior wall MI
b. anterolateral MI
c. Inferior wall MI
d. Lateral wall MI
e. Inferior wall MI
123. Groove for subclavian artery at
a. clavicle
b. 1st rib
c. 2nd rib
d. 6th rib
124. Structures entering thorasic inlet
a. accessory nerve
b. aorta
c. superior vena cava
d. azygous vein
e. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
125. Diaphragm is directly not attached to:
a. T10 vertebral body
b. L1 vertebral body
c. xiphisternum
d. 10th rib
126. Fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of serous pericardium is supplied by
รค. phrenic nerve
b. cardiac plexus
c. esophageal plexus
d. intercostal nerves
127. Needle inserted at 5th intercostal space on the left of the sternum pierces:
a. internal intercostal muscle
b. internal membrane
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
e. right ventricle
128. Which is untrue. 1st branch of ascending aorta is:
a. RCA from anterior aortic sinus
b. LCA from arch of aorta
c. left subclavian
129. 2nd heart sound is produced d/t :
a. closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
130. S2 splitting occurs d/t
a. delayed closure of pulmonic valve
131. Spinal cord ends at the level of lower border of:
a. L2 vertebra
b. L3 vertebra
c. L4 vertebra
d. L5 vertebra
e. S1 vertebra
132. Which is a branch of posterior division of sacral plexus
a. pudendal nerve
b. posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. common peroneal nerve
d. nerve to quadratus femoris
e. perforating cutaneous nerve
133. Aortic pressure tracing is highest at which phase of cardiac cycle:
a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. rapid ejection phase
c. slow ejection phase
d. isovolumetric contraction
134. Muscle of quiet inspiration
a. diaphragm
135. Damage to pneumotaxic centre leads to:
a. apneusis
b. deep inspiration
c. short expiratory phase
d. irregular breathing
e. apnea
136. Thich filaments:
a. actin
b. myocin
c. tropomyocin
d. actin and myocin
e. troponin
137. Example of carrier mediated counter transport:
a. Na- glucose transport
138. Depolarization of cell is maintained by:
a. Na influx
139. Inhaled foreign body lodges in which part of lung
a. Rt apical bronchus
140. At the end of expiration:
a. intra-alveolar pressure is subatmospheric
b. intra-pleural pressure is subatmospheric
141. Action potential thru large nerve fiber:
a. 300 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 3 ms
d. 0.3 ms
e. 0.03 ms
142. Blow to the lateral surface of knee joint damages:
a. medial meniscus, medial collateral lig and anterior cruciate lig.
143. Knee joint is supplied by:
a. L3-L4
144. Vagus forms the efferent pathway of:
a. Hering- Breur reflex
b. J- receptors of pulmonary capillaries
c. Bain Bridge reflex
145. Leftwatd shift of oxy-Hb curve is called:
a. Bohr effect
b. Haldane effect
c. Chloride shift
146. Ventilation perfusion mismatch in which Ventilation > Perfusion is called as:
a. shunt
b. dead space
147. Most important buffer is interstitial fluid
a. Hb
b. H2CO3
c. H2PO4
d. Proteins
148. Damage to what part of brain will result in central cease of respiration
a. medulla
149. Pacinian corpuscles related to
a. touch
b. vibration
c. pressure
d. rapidly adapting pain
e. slowly adapting pain
150. Medullary respiratory group of neurons part of ascending reticular system
a. True
b. false
151. Anion gap increases in:
a. Uncontrolled DM
152. Bile from liver is different from that from GB in:
a. has more HCO3-
b. has more mucous and pigments
c. has more anions
153. Dry mouth increases all except
a. thrist
b. ADH
c. Ag II
d. Plsma osmolarity
e. Plasma vol
154. H* sec from nephron is inc by
a. acidosis
b. alkalosis
155. Coronary blood flow is maintained by:
a. autoregulation
156. Increased filtration thru capillary is fascilitated by:
a. Inc plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b. inc hydrostatic pressure of cap
c. inc hydrostatic pressure of ISF
d. inc oncotic pressure of ISF
157. General anesthesia influences
a. motor is affected 1st
b. pain neurons blocked 1st
c. sensory neurons blocked 1st
d. autonomic neurons blocked 1st
158. Middle cerebral artery supplies
a. leg foot area of motor and sensory cortex.......... true / false
159. Stretch reflex afferent 1a fibers .................... true/false
160. Mediators of inflammation
a. C3a
b. C5a
c. IL1
d. TNF alpha
161. Largest total cross-sectional and surface area is of:
a. artery
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins
162. Blood flow regulation is mediated by:
a. arterioles
b. precepillary sphincter
c. capillaries
d. venules
163. If heart rate is 80 beats/min
a. duration of PR interval wld be b/w 0.12 - 0.16 sec
164. Lung function that cannot be measured by spirometry:
a. Residual vol
165. FRC = ?
a. ERV + RV
166. Hypoglycemia increases
a. SSK
b. Somatostatin
c. Gastrin
d. VIP
e. Secretin
167. Gastric acid is stimulated by:
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secterin
d. GIP
e. VIP
168. Somatostatin dec sec of which hormone
a. ADH
b. Insulin
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
e. Thyroid hormone
169. A postmenopausal women suffered fracture d/t osteoporosis. Her Ca** is Inc, PO4 is dec. Reason?
a. Estrogen
b. Cortison
c. PTH
d. CRF
e. Calcitonin
170. Physics... Capacitance
ANESTHESIA
1. If a drug is taken orally. How will u assess the drug?
a. plasma drug conc
b. blood drug conc
c. urine drug conc
2. Regarding Nitroglycerine, all are true except
a. extensive 1st pass effect
b. venodilator
c. dec venous return
d. dec HR
e. t1/2 is 3-5 min
3. Warfarin, effect inc by
a. Cimetidine
4. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than in adults
a. dec metabolism
b. dec plasma protein binding
5. Enzyme induction occurs in:
a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. adrenals
6. Digoxin toxicity
a. Inc K*
b. Inc Mg*
c. dec Ca**
d. dec Na*
e. alkalosis
7. Secondary active transport occurs thru
a. glucose
b. Na*
c. K*
d. Urea
8. 2 liters of 2 different gases of diff mol wt contain
a. equal no. of molecules
b. equal no. of atoms
9. Capillary permeability is inc by
a. hypertension
b. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
c. intersitial hydrostatic press
d. altered permeability
10. PG in inflammation dec by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors
11. Which is true.
a. all parasymp are cholinergic
b. all sympathetic are adrenergic
c. all post-gang parasymp are cholinergic
12. Gastric motility is inc by:
a. inc gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
13. Gastric acid is inc by
a. Gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
14. Basal level of bile
15. alpha recptors effects ?
a. inc HR
b. lipogenesis
c. midriasis
d. piloerector contraction
e. bronchodilator
16. Beta effect ?
a. Inc HR and force of contraction
17. ACh effect?
a. Inc salivation
b. inc sweating
c. constipation
18. Thirst is dec by:
a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. Ag II
d. baroreceptor efferent
e. inc Hematocrit
19. promotes each others actions
a. atropine and reserpine
b. amytriptyline and reserpine
c. atropine and amitryptyline
20. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mg/kg thiopentone, pt is hypotonic. Cause ?
a. hypersensitivity
b. dec HR
c. dec contractility
21.In hypertonic obs cardiomyopathy, which Ca** channel blocker is used:
a. Nifedipine
b. Nicardipine
22. Loop diuretics + thiazides enhance each others effect ( Dec NaCl abs) at:
a. descending loop of Henle
b. ascending loop of Henle
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. collecting duct
23. Pt with mild CCF. Treatment started. 1 week later pt complains of severe pain at Rt big toe. Cause:
a. thiazide
b. furosemide
c. ACEi
d. amiodarone
24. Metastatic pleural effusion. Drug to be given:
a. streptomycin
b. clindamycin
c. corticosteroids
d. bleomycin
25. Monotherapy for mild CCF:
a. digoxin
b. captopril
c. nifedipine
d. propranolol
26.Pacemaker for complete heart block. Terminals shd be in:
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Rt atrium
d. purkinje
e. Rt ventricle ..............(correct)
27. Infant with renal abnormality (renal artery stenosis). Drug responsible:
a. ACEi
b. Ca** channel blocker
c. amiodarone
28.Lungs inactivate Bradykinin by:
a. enz involved in converting kallikrein to plasma protein
29.After loss of 1 litre of blood in 5 min:
a. diastolic press dec
b. systolic press dec
c. aldosterone inc
d. no change
30. CO = VR. Large hump on left of cardiac pacing mentions:
a. inc contractility
b. inc HR
c. inc end-diastolic vol
31. Amiodarone.........> MOA
32. Lidocaine. MOA?
a. dec abnormal tissue conduction and no effect on normal tissue
b. inc PR interval
c. dec atrial contraction
d. dec AV conduction
e. inc QRS
f. inc QT
33. Class IA antiarrythmic drugs
a. Lidocaine
b. quinidine
c. procainide
d. amiodarone
34. Lidocaine as antiarrrythmic:
a. blocks Na* channels
b. Beta blocker
c. K* channel blocker
35.Verapamil ..... as antiarrythmic ?
36.Drug that inc extracellular K* (moves K* out of the cell):
a. Angiotensin
b. H2CO3
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. pH
e. exercise
37. Sec K* in renal cells
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. carbonic anhydrase
38. Consistent finding in hypoKalemia
a. prolong vomiting
b. diarrhea
c. ureters attached to colon
39. Metabolic alkalosis
a. renal failure
40. ARF- most effect.
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LOH
d. CD
41. Hb 8.0, HCO3- inc (35), pH Inc, Ca++ dec. Cause
a. ARF
b. Vit D def
c. folic acid deficiency
d. PTH
42. Anesthetics differ from anelgesics in:
a. only alter A delta and C fibers
b. Anesthetics effect at cerebral level and analgesics at spinal cord level
c. affects only pain and temp and no other sensory modalities
43. High output cardiac failure
a. Thiamine
b. B2
c. B6
d. Folic acid
44. 90 yrs old lady with purplish large patch on Rt hand and arm. No itching or pain. No comorbids, Otherwise Normal. Reason?
a. Capillary abn
b. Prothrombin
c. Vit K dependent clotting factors
45. 10 yrs old girl from Baluchistan c/o fatiguw, lethargy, mild jaundice, discoloration of skin, enlarged spleen. Hb 8.0, MCV 58, S. Ferritin 1000. Appropriate treatment?
a. deferroxamine
b. blood transfusion
c. iron transfusion
46. Death d/t embolism after accident
a. Fat
b. tumor cells
c. air
d. thromboembolism
47. Warfarin, effects on:
a. Factor VIII
b. factor III
c. Prothrombin
48. Ibpratopium bromide given by nebulization:
a. dec ACh release in bronchi
b. vasodil
c. inc secretion
49. Mast cell stabilizer.
a. Na chromoglycate
50. T1/2 of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:
a. 20-50 hrs
b. 50-100 hrs
c. 100-200 hrs
d. 36-200 hrs ................... (correct)
51. Post menopausal women with brease ca. DOC
a. Tamoxifen
52. Sec released from thyroid gland entering circulation is:
a. Thyroxine
b. Free T3
c. free T4
d. TSH
e. TRH
53. Cushing's triad:
a. Inc ICP, HTN, Bradycardia
b. Inc ICP, hypoTN, bradycardia
c. inc ICP, hypoTN, tachycardia
d. inc ICP, HTN. tachycardia
e. dec ICP, HTN, tachycardia
54. CSF
a. total 150 ml
b. production rate 20 ml/hr
c. produced by ependymal cells of choroid plexus
d. drained by lymphatics
55. CSF:
a. Inc K* than plasma
b. dec glucose
c. dec specific gravity
56. PTH
a. inc PO4 abs from renal tubules
b. inc Ca resorption from bones
c. CRF
d. Anemia
57. Imp buffer in interstitial fluid
a. H2CO3
b. Hb
c. plasma pr.
d. PO4
58. Cell wall synthesis inhib
a. Penicillin
59. Sulphonamides inhibit
a. tetrahydrofolate in bacteria
60. Dark urine after starting ATT.
a. Rifampin
61. 1 week after starting of ATT, pt c/o pain in big toe. Reason
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. PZA
62. Needle inserted at paramedian vertebral canal pierces:
a. ant spinal lig
b. post spinal lig
c. supraspinal lig
d. interspinal log
e. ligamentum flavum
63. Pseudomembrane colitis linked to:
a. clindamycin
b. penicillin
c. cephalosporins
d. erythromycin
64. Regarding chemotherapy all are true, except:
a. often multi therapy is not curative
b. req daily dosing of multiple drugs for long time
65. Flumazenil
a. onset of action 30-60 min
b. all unconscious pts must be screened by this drug
c. paradoxical tachycardia
d. max safe dose 1 mg/day
66. Isoflurane
a. MAC 1.9
b. req special vaporizer
c. dec HR
66. Sevoflurane
a. dec HR
b. req use of normal vaporizer
67. MAC of Sevoflurane with 60% NO
a. 0.66-0.68
67. Ether causes
a. autonomic stimulation
68. Enflurane
a. EEG typical of seizures
b. not concerned to dose / conc adm
c. inc ICP
d. nonevident facial spasm
69. More pungent.
a. Isoflurane
b. enflurane
c. desflurane at MAC <1
70. Halothane
71. Metabolism of halides to release fluroide levels in descending order:
a. desfurane < isoflurane < enflurane < sevoflurane < halothane < methoxyflurane
0.02 0.2 2.5 3 - 5 20
72. Blood flow regulation
a. cerebrum > cerebellum > sp. cord
b. sp. cord > cerebellum > cerebrum
c. cerebrum > sp. cord > cerebellum
73. N2O shd not be used in elderly with intestinal obs d/t:
a. risk of inc distension
74. Cylinder half filled with liquid N2O. Pressure in the cylinder?
75. Pressre of N2O cylinder is 750 psi. Pressure in the cylinder till the last drop evaporates?
76. T1/2 N2O ?
a. does not undergo metab and is exc unchanged
77. Myocardial toxicity to a L/A?
a. Bupivacaine
78. cardiovascular collapse
a. bupivacaine
79. MetHbemia
a. Prilocaine
80. Fracture 5, 6th rib. longest acting L/A to be given
a. Bupivacaine
81. MAC related to:
a. Bl / gas solubility
b. oil / gas solubility
c. alveolar air conc.
82. Hyperoxia. All true except 1.
a. retrolental fibroplasia
b. atelectasis
c. dec surfactant prod
d. CV depression
e. anemia
83. PG released in inflammation are inhibited by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. serotonin
84. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic pt
a. atracurium
b. tubocurare
c. cisatracurium
d. suxa
85. Muscle relaxant, renally exc, long duration of action
a. tubocurare
b. vancuronium
c. pancuroniun
d. gellamine
86. For disinfection hands shd be washed with
a. phenol
b. alcohol with chlorhexidine
c. formaldehyde
87. The operating room shd b cleaned with the following drug, following surgery of HIV pt:
a. 10% gluteraldehyde
b. 1% phosphoenol
c. 2% gluteraldehyde
d. H2O2
88. Following is true regarding sterilization:
a. repeated heating denatures polyvenyl tubings
b. autoclaving is heating objects at 121 degC at 15 psi for 3 min
c. radiation (UV light)
d. dry heat
e. formaldehyd
89. Reason for heat generation when CO2 is passed thru soda lime
a. formation of CaCO3
b. CaO formation
c. friction b/w soda and CO2
90. Flowmeter stops working when
a. flow of N2O > O2
b. flow of O2 > N2O
c. breakage / disruption of control valve.
91. Laminar flow (MURAD QS)
a. flow directly prop pressure
b. resistance independent
92. When Rynolds no. exceeds 3000
a. viscosity dec
b. density dec
c. velocity dec
93. Flow meter
a. used towards expiration
b. kept vertical to keep the dial needle at zero
c. not affected by humidity
d. cannot be attached to the ventilator
94. Regarding transducer all are true except
a. changes signal from 1 form of energy to another
b. capacitanc transducer can be used on body
95. Movement of molecules from high conc they layer/ surface:
a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. doppler effect
96. Critical temp is:
a. the temp at which gas must be cooled to become liquid
97. Latent heat of vaporization:
a. temp at which liquid converts to vapour / gas without the utilization of external heat
b. becomes zero with gain of energy
98. Relation of vol of a subs to its weight is:
a. density
b. viscosity
c. conc
99. To convert Celcius scale to Farenheit scale:
a. 9/5 *F- 32
b. 5/9 *F x 32
c. 5/9 *F + 32
d. Subract 32 and multiply by 5/9
e. add 32 and multiply by 9/5
100. Pt lying uncovered in operating room. Max heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
101. Pt with ETT tube. Heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
102. As the gas flows thru the vaporizer
a. gas is heated
b. outside of the container is cooled
c. surface vapour with highest energy is evaporated
103. Humidity is measured by:
a. hygrometer
b. thermometer
104. Apart frm measuring end tidal CO2 conc., capnograph can also measure
a. CO2 saturation
b. PO2
c. reduced Hb
d. oxyHb
105. Regarding Capnograph
a. rise of baseline indicate failure of valve
b. rise of height indicate valve failure
106. O2 is measured by all techniques except ......................(MURAD QS)
a. mass spectrometry
107. alpha waves with eyes closed
a. convert to beta when eyes open
b. convert to delta in REM
c. followed by slow frequency, high altitude wave
108. During diathermy when neutral plate is disturbed: ( Burn inc as current density inc, but independent of freq )
a. pt may get a burn even at ECG electrodes ( Burn can occur at all frequencies )
b. depends it is operating at cutting or coagulation mode
c. depends on current frequency
109. Strong magnetic instruments may not be used in a remote village d/t side effects. Instrument that can be used is:
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Angioplasty
110. Resistance in series:
a. inc as the wire is stretched
b. known as strain gauge used as pressure transducer
c. proportional to current flow
111. Wheatstone bridge
a. measures changes of resistsnce
b. no current flows when bridge is balanced
112. Pulse oxymetery
a. signals occur at 0.5 sec
b. light emitted by filtered light source
113. Variance is related to:
a. variability
b. square root of std deviation
c. range
114. Which measure of central tendency is used most frequently in clinical practise
a. mean
b. mode
c. median
d. 50th percentile
e. Wilcoxon rank sum test
115. t-test
a. shows relation of 2 paired means
116. Surgeon treats 200 pts of heamorrhoids. He randomly divides the pts into surgically treated and pharmacologically treated groups. After 1 yr he reasses the pts and finds that surgically treated pts have better outcome. This is called:
a. case - control study
b. cohort study
c. prospective cohort
d. randomized control trials
117. Treatment of strep pneumonia by sulphonamide and penicilline by random selection is called:
a. single blind
b. double blind
c. tripple blind
118. O2 carried most in fetal circ.
a. Umblical artery
b. Umblical vein
c. Superior vena cava
d. Aorta
119. Esophagus histology
a. covered by squamous ep
b. has str. sq in upper 1/3
c. has str. sq. in lower 1/3
d. has 3 layers of muscles
e. esophageal opening acting as anatomical sphincter
120. Length of larynx.
a. 15 cm average
b. cricoid to T2 cartilage
121. Esophageal opening
a. at left crus of diaphragm
b. Left phrenic nerve also passes thru this opening
c. at level of T12 vert
d. acts as anatomic sphincter to the stomach
122. Pt complains of chest pain for more than 30 min . ECG shows changes in V1- V4. It denotes:
a. anterior wall MI
b. anterolateral MI
c. Inferior wall MI
d. Lateral wall MI
e. Inferior wall MI
123. Groove for subclavian artery at
a. clavicle
b. 1st rib
c. 2nd rib
d. 6th rib
124. Structures entering thorasic inlet
a. accessory nerve
b. aorta
c. superior vena cava
d. azygous vein
e. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
125. Diaphragm is directly not attached to:
a. T10 vertebral body
b. L1 vertebral body
c. xiphisternum
d. 10th rib
126. Fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of serous pericardium is supplied by
รค. phrenic nerve
b. cardiac plexus
c. esophageal plexus
d. intercostal nerves
127. Needle inserted at 5th intercostal space on the left of the sternum pierces:
a. internal intercostal muscle
b. internal membrane
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
e. right ventricle
128. Which is untrue. 1st branch of ascending aorta is:
a. RCA from anterior aortic sinus
b. LCA from arch of aorta
c. left subclavian
129. 2nd heart sound is produced d/t :
a. closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
130. S2 splitting occurs d/t
a. delayed closure of pulmonic valve
131. Spinal cord ends at the level of lower border of:
a. L2 vertebra
b. L3 vertebra
c. L4 vertebra
d. L5 vertebra
e. S1 vertebra
132. Which is a branch of posterior division of sacral plexus
a. pudendal nerve
b. posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. common peroneal nerve
d. nerve to quadratus femoris
e. perforating cutaneous nerve
133. Aortic pressure tracing is highest at which phase of cardiac cycle:
a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. rapid ejection phase
c. slow ejection phase
d. isovolumetric contraction
134. Muscle of quiet inspiration
a. diaphragm
135. Damage to pneumotaxic centre leads to:
a. apneusis
b. deep inspiration
c. short expiratory phase
d. irregular breathing
e. apnea
136. Thich filaments:
a. actin
b. myocin
c. tropomyocin
d. actin and myocin
e. troponin
137. Example of carrier mediated counter transport:
a. Na- glucose transport
138. Depolarization of cell is maintained by:
a. Na influx
139. Inhaled foreign body lodges in which part of lung
a. Rt apical bronchus
140. At the end of expiration:
a. intra-alveolar pressure is subatmospheric
b. intra-pleural pressure is subatmospheric
141. Action potential thru large nerve fiber:
a. 300 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 3 ms
d. 0.3 ms
e. 0.03 ms
142. Blow to the lateral surface of knee joint damages:
a. medial meniscus, medial collateral lig and anterior cruciate lig.
143. Knee joint is supplied by:
a. L3-L4
144. Vagus forms the efferent pathway of:
a. Hering- Breur reflex
b. J- receptors of pulmonary capillaries
c. Bain Bridge reflex
145. Leftwatd shift of oxy-Hb curve is called:
a. Bohr effect
b. Haldane effect
c. Chloride shift
146. Ventilation perfusion mismatch in which Ventilation > Perfusion is called as:
a. shunt
b. dead space
147. Most important buffer is interstitial fluid
a. Hb
b. H2CO3
c. H2PO4
d. Proteins
148. Damage to what part of brain will result in central cease of respiration
a. medulla
149. Pacinian corpuscles related to
a. touch
b. vibration
c. pressure
d. rapidly adapting pain
e. slowly adapting pain
150. Medullary respiratory group of neurons part of ascending reticular system
a. True
b. false
151. Anion gap increases in:
a. Uncontrolled DM
152. Bile from liver is different from that from GB in:
a. has more HCO3-
b. has more mucous and pigments
c. has more anions
153. Dry mouth increases all except
a. thrist
b. ADH
c. Ag II
d. Plsma osmolarity
e. Plasma vol
154. H* sec from nephron is inc by
a. acidosis
b. alkalosis
155. Coronary blood flow is maintained by:
a. autoregulation
156. Increased filtration thru capillary is fascilitated by:
a. Inc plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b. inc hydrostatic pressure of cap
c. inc hydrostatic pressure of ISF
d. inc oncotic pressure of ISF
157. General anesthesia influences
a. motor is affected 1st
b. pain neurons blocked 1st
c. sensory neurons blocked 1st
d. autonomic neurons blocked 1st
158. Middle cerebral artery supplies
a. leg foot area of motor and sensory cortex.......... true / false
159. Stretch reflex afferent 1a fibers .................... true/false
160. Mediators of inflammation
a. C3a
b. C5a
c. IL1
d. TNF alpha
161. Largest total cross-sectional and surface area is of:
a. artery
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins
162. Blood flow regulation is mediated by:
a. arterioles
b. precepillary sphincter
c. capillaries
d. venules
163. If heart rate is 80 beats/min
a. duration of PR interval wld be b/w 0.12 - 0.16 sec
164. Lung function that cannot be measured by spirometry:
a. Residual vol
165. FRC = ?
a. ERV + RV
166. Hypoglycemia increases
a. SSK
b. Somatostatin
c. Gastrin
d. VIP
e. Secretin
167. Gastric acid is stimulated by:
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secterin
d. GIP
e. VIP
168. Somatostatin dec sec of which hormone
a. ADH
b. Insulin
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
e. Thyroid hormone
169. A postmenopausal women suffered fracture d/t osteoporosis. Her Ca** is Inc, PO4 is dec. Reason?
a. Estrogen
b. Cortison
c. PTH
d. CRF
e. Calcitonin
170. Physics... Capacitance
Medicine March 2008
PREPARED BY: DR:MUHAMMAD SHEERAZ AKHTAR SOOMRO
1] Which one of the following is COX-II INHIBITOR?
A} Aspirin
B} Ibuprofen
C} Indomethacin
D} Meloxicam
E} Piroxicam
2] Which one of the following vitamin deficiency causes HOMOCYSTENURIA?
A} Vitamin B1
B} Vitamin B2
C} Vitamin B6
D} Vitamin B12
E} Biotin
3] Which one of the following structures is present at free edge of LESSER OMENTUM?
A} Bile duct, cystic artery, portal vein
B} Bile duct, hepatic artery, portal vein
C} Hepatic vein, hepatic artery, portal vein
4] A 16 year old boy was given CO-TRIMAXAZOLE for fever, after few hours he developed red color urine, likely abnormality is in
A} Glucose-6-Phosphate deficiency
B} Immune hemolysis
C} Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
D} Malaria
E} Sickle cell disease
5] Thiamine deficiency causes
A} Peripheral Neuropathy
B} Pellagra
C} Chelosis
D} Dermatitis
6] Milk is notoriously deficient in
A} Vitamin C
B} Iron
C} Riboflavin
D} Pantothenic acid
E} Vitamin A
7] Dry heat kills the bacteria by
A} Coagulation of proteins
B} Cell lysis
C} Free radical formation
D} Direct killing
E} Oxidation
8] Virus damage the cell by
A} Making the pores in cell membrane
B} Forming free radicals
C} Altering the formation of proteins
D} Nuclear damage
E} using energy for their own metabolism
9] Which one of the following lipoprotein has highest protein content?
A} HDL
B} LDL
C} VLDL
D} IDL
E} CHYLMICRONS
10] All are related to PLATELET FUNCTION EXCEPT
A} Capillary resilience test
B} BT
C} Clot retraction
11] ALLELLE is:
A} Fragmented genes
B} Non-identical genes
C} Structural genes
D} Regulatory gene
E} Autosomal Dominant gene
12] D.I.C is stimulated by:
A} Factor X
B} Factor XII
C} Thromboplastin
D} Factor IX
E} Fibrinogen
13] In parenchymal cells Iron is deposited in the form of
A} Tranferrin
B} Ferritin
C} Heamatin
D} Heamoglobin
E} Lipifuscin
14] a mother is having blood group A+(Ao, DD), father is having blood group B+(Bo, Dd). Which of the following blood group cannot be inherited by their children?
A} A+
B} B+
C} AB+
D} AB-
E} O+
15] The person has suffered the injury to spinal cord leading to HEMISECTION of the cord, the IPSILATERAL sign will be
A} Loss of pain
B} Loss of temperature
C} Loss of sensation of touch and vibration
D} Lower motor neuron paralysis
E} Upper motor neuron paralysis
16] Valve less vessel is
A} Aorta
B} Pulmonary artery
C} Coronary Sinus
D} Pulmonary Trunk
E} SVC
17] A lady has undergone colostomy is now on the TPN. She is prone to develop:
A} Hyperglycemia
B} Hypocalcaemia
C} Hypophosphatemia
D} Hyperviscosity
E} Hypoglycemia
18] Turner syndrome
A} XXY
B} 45XO
C} 46XY
D} XXX
E} 69XX
19] Regarding Von Willbrand disease
A} Autosomal Dominant
B} Autosomal Recessive
C} Some family members have low level of Factor IX
D} Some family members have abnormal level of Factor IX
E} has positive family history
20] Which of the following condition is related to lymphatics?
A} Angiosarcoma
B} Rhabdomyosarcoma
C} Cystic hygroma
21] The condition in which pulmonary trunk fails to divide leading to
A} PDA
B} Truncus arteriosus
C} TOF
22] Basal Cell Carcinoma is located at
A} Lower lip
B} Upper lip
C} Tongue
D} Hard palate
E} Soft palate
23] All are branches of Vagus Nerve except
A} Auricular Nerve
B} Lacrimal Nerve
C} Recurrent Larengeal Nerve
D} Internal Larengeal Nerve
24] Permanent Atrophy is caused by
A} Loss of Innervation
B} Hormonal Deficiency
C} Immobilization
D} Nutritional deficiency
E} blockage of arterial supply
25] Which of the following is not Carcinogen?
A} Alcohol
B} Benzathracine
C} Cyclophosphamide
D} Benzidine
E} Dimethylsulfate
26] The Initial step in APOPTOSIS is
A} Inhibition of P53 genes
B} Activation of BCL-2
C} Activation of Caspases
D} pores formed by lymphocytes
27] Which of the following is content of Cavernous Sinus?
A} Oculomotor
B} Trochelear
C} Abducent
D} Trigeminal (V3)
28] Which part of kidney produces ERYTROPOITEN
A} Macula Densa
B} Peritubular Capillary
C} PCT
D} DCT
E} LOH
29] A patient with signs and symptoms of megaloblasstic anemia. The likely cause is
A Decreased GIT motility
B} Deficiency of intrinsic factor
C} Malabsorption
30] Stimulation to increase Serum Calcium is
A} Hypo-phosphatemia
B} Paratharmone
C} Decreased ECF
31] Malnutrition causes all of the following EXCEPT
A} Pitting Edema.
B} Loss of subcutaneous fat.
C} Failure to thrive.
D} Skin pigmentation
E} Thrombocytopenia
32] Liver biopsy from a patient shows a lesion which comprises of central collection of structure less material surrounded by epitheliod cells and lymphocytes. One large cell with multiple nuclei arranged close to membrane is also seen. The most likely change in central area would be:
A} Caseous necrosis
B} Coagulation necrosis
C} Fatty changes
D} Hydropic changes
E} Liquefective necrosis
33] A 28 year fisherman presented with slowly developing lethargy, easy fatigue and palpitations. His diet comprises of fish and rice only. Physical examination: Pallor, Loss of touch sense in both feet and legs Hb: 7.5 gm/dl, Platelet count: 110 x 10 9/L. Reticulocyte count: 0.5%. Stool DR: Ova of Intestinal parasite. The most likely causative parasite is
A} Ankylostomata Duodenale
B} Ascris Lumbricoidis
C} Diphylobothrium Latum
D} Strangyloids Stercoralis
E} Taenia Saginata
34] A 40 year old male after road traffic accident had received massive blood transfusion. He is expected to have all EXCEPT
A} Hypocalcaemia
B} Hypokalemia
C} Hypothermia
D} Left shift of Oxyheamoglobin dissociation curve
E} Metabolic acidosis
35] The endothelial molecules ICAM-1 & VCAM-1 are responsible for
A} Direct endothelial injury
B} Endothelial cell contraction
C} Junctional retraction
D} Leukocyte adhesion
E} Leukocyte margination
36] Eating raw or under cooked meat can cause infestation by
A} Dracunculous Medinensis
B} Echinecoccus Granulosis
C} Liver Fluke
D} Schistosomiasis
E} Tape Worm
37] A pt: has sustained burn that is very painful with blisters. Healing of this burn will take place from which of the following layers of the skin
A} Basal layer of epidermis
B} Keratinized layer
C} Layer of upper dermis
D} Lower dermis
E} Subcutaneous layer
38] A 40 year old male presented with jaundice and generalized itching. His LFT shows Direct Billirubin 11 mg/100 ml, SGPT 75U/L, Alkaline Phosphate 2300 IU/L 500IU/L. The most likely cause is
A} Drug induced jaundice
B} Extra hepatic Cholestasis
C} Autoimmune Hepatitis
D} Alcoholic Hepatitis
E} Intrahepatic Cholestasis
39] The tissue damage by Ionization Radiation is due to
A} Damage to Golgi bodies
B} Formation of free radicals
C} Hydropic degeneration
D} Metaplasia of cell
E} Swelling of cells
40] Formation of free radicals cause by
A} Ionization Radiation
41] Edema of renal origin is most likely due to
Albuminuria & sodium retention
B} Decreased water excretion
C} Hypertension
D} Renal stone
E} Sodium retention by the kidney
42] Increase in Light Chain Immunoglobulins Is the characteristic feature of
A} Endocrine type Amyloidosis
B} Hereditary Amyloidosis
C} Localized type Amyloidosis
D} Reactive Amyloidosis
E} Systemic type Amyloidosis
43] Chemotaxis is caused by
A} C5a
B} C5b
C} Lymphokines
D} Leucotriene B3
E} Opsonins
44] Following are the actions of Archidonic acid metabolites in inflammation EXCEPT
A} Chemotaxis
B} Increased vascular permeability
C} Thrombosis
D} Vasoconstriction
E} Vasodilatation
45] A 65 year old male pt: presented with chest pain for last 30 mins. And has ST segment elevation in LEADS V1 to V4. He is most likely to have
A} Anterior infarction
B} Anterolateral infarction
C} Anteroseptal infarction
D} Inferior Infarction
E} True Posterior infarction
46] A female at 30 wks of gestation has Hb: 9.0 g/dl with normocytic normochromic picture. The blood condition is most likely due to
A} Iron deficiency
B} Decreased bone marrow activity
C} Folic acid deficiency
D} Increased placenta size
E} Plasma Volume Expansion
47] The Sensations of Anterior Triangle of the neck is mediated through
A} C1, C2, C3
B} C1, C2, C3, C4
C} C2, C3, C4
D} C2, C3s
E} C1, C2
48] All are features of IRREVERSIBLE cell injury EXCEPT
A} Karyolysis
B} Karyorhexis
C} Autolysis
D} Shrinkage of mitochondria
E} Appearance of myelin figure
49] A young athlete has difficulty in flexion of knee and extension of hip. Which of the following muscle is likely paralyzed
A} Rectus femoris
B} Sartorius
C} Semitendinosus
D} Vastas lateralis
E} Popliteus
50] In the Aortic opening I the Diaphragm is constricted, which of the following structure will be compressed along with Aorta
A} Azygous vein and Vagus nerve
B} Thoracic duct and Vagus nerve
C} Thoracic duct and Azygos vein
D} Azygos vein and both phrenic nerves
E} Inferior vena cava
51] When the bulbur urethra wil injure, urine will leak into
A} Deep Perineal Pouch
B} Superficial Perineal Pouch
C} Fascia lata
D} Scrotum
E} Ischiorectal fossa
52] The most common site of fertilization in humans is
A} Ovary
B} Uterus
C} Fallopian tube
D} Cervix
E} Peritoneal cavity
53] The initial event in the transfer of RBC to site of inflammation
A} Margination
B} Emigration
C} Pavementation
D} Diapedesis
E} Phagocytosis
54] A semiconscious patient is brought to the emergency room. He has history of taking some unknown drug. NaHCO3 reverses the action of the drug. Which drug the pt. has likely taken:
A} Phenobarbital
B} Phenothiazine
C} Morphine
D} Diazepam
E} Alcohol
55] Within 1 hr of the Acute M.I, which of the following enzyme will be raised?
A} CK-MB
B} LDH
C} Alkaline Phosphatase
D} AST
E} Troponin T
56] Which organelle is not present at axon hillock
A} Microtubules
B} microfilaments
C} Mitochondria
D} RER
E} SER
57] Which is not related to embolus?
A} Liquid
B} Gas
C} Thrombus
D} Amniotic fluid
E} Fat
58] Which of the following muscle compensate for supinator?
A} Biceps Brachi
B} Brachialis
C} Brachioradialis
59] A patient presented with anterior wall M.I Artery involved is
A} LAD
60] Which of the following molecule easily crosses Blood Brain Barrier?
A} CO2
B} H2O
61] Hypervitaminosis A cause
A} Ataxia
B} Anemia
C} Scaly Dermatitis
62] Hypertrophy indicates
A} Increase in size of cell
B} Increase in no. of cell
C} Decrease in no. of cell
D} Decrease in size of cell
63] Diabetic patient using Roziglitazone and metformin. Which investigation for follow up
A} Lipid profile + Renal profile
B} Renal profile + Hepatic profile
C} Renal profile + Hepatic profile + Cardiac
64] If the whole movement of Abduction of arm is lost the likely damage is in the Brachial Plexus
A} Upper trunk + Posterior cord
B} Upper trunk + Medial cord
C} Lower trunk + Posterior cord
D} Lower trunk + Medial cord
65] Cords of Brachial Plexus are named according to Relation with
A} Axillary artery
B} Subclavian artery
66] Myelination in CNS is done by
A} Schwann cells
B} Oligodendrocytes
C} Astrocytes
D} Microglia cells
67] Captopril
A} can be given in large doses in hypertensive crisis
68] Which of the nucleus is NOT related to Facial Nerve?
A} Main Dorsal Nucleus
B} Nucleus of Tractus Solitarius
C} Nucleus Ambiguas
D} Sensory nucleus
69] Platelets
A} Are formed from precursor cells in the bone marrow
B} Has no nucleus
70] Primary auditory cortex is present in
A} Occipital lobe
B} Superior Temporal Gyrus
C} Frontal lobe
D} Prefrontal lobe
71] Patient is suffering from factor VIII deficiency
A} Genetically Engineered Factor VIII is available
72] Most Common cause of Thyrotoxicosis
A} Graves disease
B} Solitary nodule
C} Toxic nodular goiter
D} Diffuse goiter
73] Which of the following is involved in maintaining RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL?
A} Outward Potassium current
B} Outward Sodium current
C} Inward Sodium current
D} Inward Chlorine current
E} Sodium/potassium ATPase Pump
74] Heart sound produced by rapid ventricular filling is
A} 1st heart sound
B} 2nd heart sound
C} 3rd heart sound
D} 4th heart sound
E} 5th heart sound
75] A patient presented with vertical diplopic, head tilting, and also difficulty coming downstairs the likely nerve damaged is
A} Oculomoter nerve
B} Trochlear nerve
C} Trigeminal nerve
D} Optic nerve
E} Abducent nerve
76] Substance has to cross semi permeable membrane in simple diffusion
A} Is not saturable
B} Require carriers
C} Require energy
77] Carcinoma prostate drain into
A} Para-aortic nodes
B} External iliac nodes
C} Internal iliac nodes
D} External and internal iliac nodes
78] Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is so
A} Catheter used is wedge shaped
B} Is direct measurement of left atrial pressure
C} Is direct measurement of Right atrial pressure
1] Which one of the following is COX-II INHIBITOR?
A} Aspirin
B} Ibuprofen
C} Indomethacin
D} Meloxicam
E} Piroxicam
2] Which one of the following vitamin deficiency causes HOMOCYSTENURIA?
A} Vitamin B1
B} Vitamin B2
C} Vitamin B6
D} Vitamin B12
E} Biotin
3] Which one of the following structures is present at free edge of LESSER OMENTUM?
A} Bile duct, cystic artery, portal vein
B} Bile duct, hepatic artery, portal vein
C} Hepatic vein, hepatic artery, portal vein
4] A 16 year old boy was given CO-TRIMAXAZOLE for fever, after few hours he developed red color urine, likely abnormality is in
A} Glucose-6-Phosphate deficiency
B} Immune hemolysis
C} Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
D} Malaria
E} Sickle cell disease
5] Thiamine deficiency causes
A} Peripheral Neuropathy
B} Pellagra
C} Chelosis
D} Dermatitis
6] Milk is notoriously deficient in
A} Vitamin C
B} Iron
C} Riboflavin
D} Pantothenic acid
E} Vitamin A
7] Dry heat kills the bacteria by
A} Coagulation of proteins
B} Cell lysis
C} Free radical formation
D} Direct killing
E} Oxidation
8] Virus damage the cell by
A} Making the pores in cell membrane
B} Forming free radicals
C} Altering the formation of proteins
D} Nuclear damage
E} using energy for their own metabolism
9] Which one of the following lipoprotein has highest protein content?
A} HDL
B} LDL
C} VLDL
D} IDL
E} CHYLMICRONS
10] All are related to PLATELET FUNCTION EXCEPT
A} Capillary resilience test
B} BT
C} Clot retraction
11] ALLELLE is:
A} Fragmented genes
B} Non-identical genes
C} Structural genes
D} Regulatory gene
E} Autosomal Dominant gene
12] D.I.C is stimulated by:
A} Factor X
B} Factor XII
C} Thromboplastin
D} Factor IX
E} Fibrinogen
13] In parenchymal cells Iron is deposited in the form of
A} Tranferrin
B} Ferritin
C} Heamatin
D} Heamoglobin
E} Lipifuscin
14] a mother is having blood group A+(Ao, DD), father is having blood group B+(Bo, Dd). Which of the following blood group cannot be inherited by their children?
A} A+
B} B+
C} AB+
D} AB-
E} O+
15] The person has suffered the injury to spinal cord leading to HEMISECTION of the cord, the IPSILATERAL sign will be
A} Loss of pain
B} Loss of temperature
C} Loss of sensation of touch and vibration
D} Lower motor neuron paralysis
E} Upper motor neuron paralysis
16] Valve less vessel is
A} Aorta
B} Pulmonary artery
C} Coronary Sinus
D} Pulmonary Trunk
E} SVC
17] A lady has undergone colostomy is now on the TPN. She is prone to develop:
A} Hyperglycemia
B} Hypocalcaemia
C} Hypophosphatemia
D} Hyperviscosity
E} Hypoglycemia
18] Turner syndrome
A} XXY
B} 45XO
C} 46XY
D} XXX
E} 69XX
19] Regarding Von Willbrand disease
A} Autosomal Dominant
B} Autosomal Recessive
C} Some family members have low level of Factor IX
D} Some family members have abnormal level of Factor IX
E} has positive family history
20] Which of the following condition is related to lymphatics?
A} Angiosarcoma
B} Rhabdomyosarcoma
C} Cystic hygroma
21] The condition in which pulmonary trunk fails to divide leading to
A} PDA
B} Truncus arteriosus
C} TOF
22] Basal Cell Carcinoma is located at
A} Lower lip
B} Upper lip
C} Tongue
D} Hard palate
E} Soft palate
23] All are branches of Vagus Nerve except
A} Auricular Nerve
B} Lacrimal Nerve
C} Recurrent Larengeal Nerve
D} Internal Larengeal Nerve
24] Permanent Atrophy is caused by
A} Loss of Innervation
B} Hormonal Deficiency
C} Immobilization
D} Nutritional deficiency
E} blockage of arterial supply
25] Which of the following is not Carcinogen?
A} Alcohol
B} Benzathracine
C} Cyclophosphamide
D} Benzidine
E} Dimethylsulfate
26] The Initial step in APOPTOSIS is
A} Inhibition of P53 genes
B} Activation of BCL-2
C} Activation of Caspases
D} pores formed by lymphocytes
27] Which of the following is content of Cavernous Sinus?
A} Oculomotor
B} Trochelear
C} Abducent
D} Trigeminal (V3)
28] Which part of kidney produces ERYTROPOITEN
A} Macula Densa
B} Peritubular Capillary
C} PCT
D} DCT
E} LOH
29] A patient with signs and symptoms of megaloblasstic anemia. The likely cause is
A Decreased GIT motility
B} Deficiency of intrinsic factor
C} Malabsorption
30] Stimulation to increase Serum Calcium is
A} Hypo-phosphatemia
B} Paratharmone
C} Decreased ECF
31] Malnutrition causes all of the following EXCEPT
A} Pitting Edema.
B} Loss of subcutaneous fat.
C} Failure to thrive.
D} Skin pigmentation
E} Thrombocytopenia
32] Liver biopsy from a patient shows a lesion which comprises of central collection of structure less material surrounded by epitheliod cells and lymphocytes. One large cell with multiple nuclei arranged close to membrane is also seen. The most likely change in central area would be:
A} Caseous necrosis
B} Coagulation necrosis
C} Fatty changes
D} Hydropic changes
E} Liquefective necrosis
33] A 28 year fisherman presented with slowly developing lethargy, easy fatigue and palpitations. His diet comprises of fish and rice only. Physical examination: Pallor, Loss of touch sense in both feet and legs Hb: 7.5 gm/dl, Platelet count: 110 x 10 9/L. Reticulocyte count: 0.5%. Stool DR: Ova of Intestinal parasite. The most likely causative parasite is
A} Ankylostomata Duodenale
B} Ascris Lumbricoidis
C} Diphylobothrium Latum
D} Strangyloids Stercoralis
E} Taenia Saginata
34] A 40 year old male after road traffic accident had received massive blood transfusion. He is expected to have all EXCEPT
A} Hypocalcaemia
B} Hypokalemia
C} Hypothermia
D} Left shift of Oxyheamoglobin dissociation curve
E} Metabolic acidosis
35] The endothelial molecules ICAM-1 & VCAM-1 are responsible for
A} Direct endothelial injury
B} Endothelial cell contraction
C} Junctional retraction
D} Leukocyte adhesion
E} Leukocyte margination
36] Eating raw or under cooked meat can cause infestation by
A} Dracunculous Medinensis
B} Echinecoccus Granulosis
C} Liver Fluke
D} Schistosomiasis
E} Tape Worm
37] A pt: has sustained burn that is very painful with blisters. Healing of this burn will take place from which of the following layers of the skin
A} Basal layer of epidermis
B} Keratinized layer
C} Layer of upper dermis
D} Lower dermis
E} Subcutaneous layer
38] A 40 year old male presented with jaundice and generalized itching. His LFT shows Direct Billirubin 11 mg/100 ml, SGPT 75U/L, Alkaline Phosphate 2300 IU/L 500IU/L. The most likely cause is
A} Drug induced jaundice
B} Extra hepatic Cholestasis
C} Autoimmune Hepatitis
D} Alcoholic Hepatitis
E} Intrahepatic Cholestasis
39] The tissue damage by Ionization Radiation is due to
A} Damage to Golgi bodies
B} Formation of free radicals
C} Hydropic degeneration
D} Metaplasia of cell
E} Swelling of cells
40] Formation of free radicals cause by
A} Ionization Radiation
41] Edema of renal origin is most likely due to
Albuminuria & sodium retention
B} Decreased water excretion
C} Hypertension
D} Renal stone
E} Sodium retention by the kidney
42] Increase in Light Chain Immunoglobulins Is the characteristic feature of
A} Endocrine type Amyloidosis
B} Hereditary Amyloidosis
C} Localized type Amyloidosis
D} Reactive Amyloidosis
E} Systemic type Amyloidosis
43] Chemotaxis is caused by
A} C5a
B} C5b
C} Lymphokines
D} Leucotriene B3
E} Opsonins
44] Following are the actions of Archidonic acid metabolites in inflammation EXCEPT
A} Chemotaxis
B} Increased vascular permeability
C} Thrombosis
D} Vasoconstriction
E} Vasodilatation
45] A 65 year old male pt: presented with chest pain for last 30 mins. And has ST segment elevation in LEADS V1 to V4. He is most likely to have
A} Anterior infarction
B} Anterolateral infarction
C} Anteroseptal infarction
D} Inferior Infarction
E} True Posterior infarction
46] A female at 30 wks of gestation has Hb: 9.0 g/dl with normocytic normochromic picture. The blood condition is most likely due to
A} Iron deficiency
B} Decreased bone marrow activity
C} Folic acid deficiency
D} Increased placenta size
E} Plasma Volume Expansion
47] The Sensations of Anterior Triangle of the neck is mediated through
A} C1, C2, C3
B} C1, C2, C3, C4
C} C2, C3, C4
D} C2, C3s
E} C1, C2
48] All are features of IRREVERSIBLE cell injury EXCEPT
A} Karyolysis
B} Karyorhexis
C} Autolysis
D} Shrinkage of mitochondria
E} Appearance of myelin figure
49] A young athlete has difficulty in flexion of knee and extension of hip. Which of the following muscle is likely paralyzed
A} Rectus femoris
B} Sartorius
C} Semitendinosus
D} Vastas lateralis
E} Popliteus
50] In the Aortic opening I the Diaphragm is constricted, which of the following structure will be compressed along with Aorta
A} Azygous vein and Vagus nerve
B} Thoracic duct and Vagus nerve
C} Thoracic duct and Azygos vein
D} Azygos vein and both phrenic nerves
E} Inferior vena cava
51] When the bulbur urethra wil injure, urine will leak into
A} Deep Perineal Pouch
B} Superficial Perineal Pouch
C} Fascia lata
D} Scrotum
E} Ischiorectal fossa
52] The most common site of fertilization in humans is
A} Ovary
B} Uterus
C} Fallopian tube
D} Cervix
E} Peritoneal cavity
53] The initial event in the transfer of RBC to site of inflammation
A} Margination
B} Emigration
C} Pavementation
D} Diapedesis
E} Phagocytosis
54] A semiconscious patient is brought to the emergency room. He has history of taking some unknown drug. NaHCO3 reverses the action of the drug. Which drug the pt. has likely taken:
A} Phenobarbital
B} Phenothiazine
C} Morphine
D} Diazepam
E} Alcohol
55] Within 1 hr of the Acute M.I, which of the following enzyme will be raised?
A} CK-MB
B} LDH
C} Alkaline Phosphatase
D} AST
E} Troponin T
56] Which organelle is not present at axon hillock
A} Microtubules
B} microfilaments
C} Mitochondria
D} RER
E} SER
57] Which is not related to embolus?
A} Liquid
B} Gas
C} Thrombus
D} Amniotic fluid
E} Fat
58] Which of the following muscle compensate for supinator?
A} Biceps Brachi
B} Brachialis
C} Brachioradialis
59] A patient presented with anterior wall M.I Artery involved is
A} LAD
60] Which of the following molecule easily crosses Blood Brain Barrier?
A} CO2
B} H2O
61] Hypervitaminosis A cause
A} Ataxia
B} Anemia
C} Scaly Dermatitis
62] Hypertrophy indicates
A} Increase in size of cell
B} Increase in no. of cell
C} Decrease in no. of cell
D} Decrease in size of cell
63] Diabetic patient using Roziglitazone and metformin. Which investigation for follow up
A} Lipid profile + Renal profile
B} Renal profile + Hepatic profile
C} Renal profile + Hepatic profile + Cardiac
64] If the whole movement of Abduction of arm is lost the likely damage is in the Brachial Plexus
A} Upper trunk + Posterior cord
B} Upper trunk + Medial cord
C} Lower trunk + Posterior cord
D} Lower trunk + Medial cord
65] Cords of Brachial Plexus are named according to Relation with
A} Axillary artery
B} Subclavian artery
66] Myelination in CNS is done by
A} Schwann cells
B} Oligodendrocytes
C} Astrocytes
D} Microglia cells
67] Captopril
A} can be given in large doses in hypertensive crisis
68] Which of the nucleus is NOT related to Facial Nerve?
A} Main Dorsal Nucleus
B} Nucleus of Tractus Solitarius
C} Nucleus Ambiguas
D} Sensory nucleus
69] Platelets
A} Are formed from precursor cells in the bone marrow
B} Has no nucleus
70] Primary auditory cortex is present in
A} Occipital lobe
B} Superior Temporal Gyrus
C} Frontal lobe
D} Prefrontal lobe
71] Patient is suffering from factor VIII deficiency
A} Genetically Engineered Factor VIII is available
72] Most Common cause of Thyrotoxicosis
A} Graves disease
B} Solitary nodule
C} Toxic nodular goiter
D} Diffuse goiter
73] Which of the following is involved in maintaining RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL?
A} Outward Potassium current
B} Outward Sodium current
C} Inward Sodium current
D} Inward Chlorine current
E} Sodium/potassium ATPase Pump
74] Heart sound produced by rapid ventricular filling is
A} 1st heart sound
B} 2nd heart sound
C} 3rd heart sound
D} 4th heart sound
E} 5th heart sound
75] A patient presented with vertical diplopic, head tilting, and also difficulty coming downstairs the likely nerve damaged is
A} Oculomoter nerve
B} Trochlear nerve
C} Trigeminal nerve
D} Optic nerve
E} Abducent nerve
76] Substance has to cross semi permeable membrane in simple diffusion
A} Is not saturable
B} Require carriers
C} Require energy
77] Carcinoma prostate drain into
A} Para-aortic nodes
B} External iliac nodes
C} Internal iliac nodes
D} External and internal iliac nodes
78] Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is so
A} Catheter used is wedge shaped
B} Is direct measurement of left atrial pressure
C} Is direct measurement of Right atrial pressure
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